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2025 Realistic Verified Free CompTIA N10-009 Exam Questions
CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following appliances provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated WLAN?
- A. Router
- B. Firewall
- C. Switch
- D. Access point
Answer: D
Explanation:
An access point (AP) provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN).
Router: Typically used to connect different networks, not specifically for extending wireless coverage.
Switch: Used to connect devices within a wired network, not for providing wireless access.
Access Point (AP): Extends wireless network coverage, allowing multiple wireless devices to connect to the network.
Firewall: Primarily used for network security, controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules, not for providing wireless connectivity.
Network Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Explains the roles and functions of network appliances, including access points.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on deploying and managing wireless networks with access points.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers network devices and their roles in creating and managing networks.
NEW QUESTION # 78
An organization wants to ensure that incoming emails were sent from a trusted source. Which of the following DNS records is used to verify the source?
- A. CNAME
- B. AAAA
- C. MX
- D. TXT
Answer: D
Explanation:
A TXT record can be used to store SPF (Sender Policy Framework) and DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) information, which help verify that an email has been sent from a trusted source.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?
- A. SCADA
- B. SAML
- C. PCI DSS
- D. GDPR
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Definition of GDPR:
* General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.
* Scope and Objectives:
* GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.
* It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.
* SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.
* PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.
* Key Provisions:
* GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A user notifies a network administrator about losing access to a remote file server. The network administrator is able to ping the server and verifies the current firewall rules do not block access to the network fileshare.
Which of the following tools wold help identify which ports are open on the remote file server?
- A. nslookup
- B. Tracert
- C. Nmap
- D. Dig
Answer: C
Explanation:
Nmap (Network Mapper) is a powerful network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a computer network. It can be used to identify which ports are open on a remote server, which can help diagnose access issues to services like a remote file server.
* Port Scanning: Nmap can perform comprehensive port scans to determine which ports are open and what services are running on those ports.
* Network Discovery: It provides detailed information about the host's operating system, service versions, and network configuration.
* Security Audits: Besides troubleshooting, Nmap is also used for security auditing and identifying potential vulnerabilities.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers network scanning tools and their uses.
* Nmap Documentation: Official documentation provides extensive details on how to use Nmap for port scanning and network diagnostics.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Discusses various network utilities, including Nmap, and their applications in network troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 81
As part of an attack, a threat actor purposefully overflows the content-addressable memory (CAM) table on a switch. Which of the following types of attacks is this scenario an example of?
- A. Evil twin
- B. MAC flooding
- C. DNS poisoning
- D. ARP spoofing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Definition of MAC Flooding:
MAC flooding is an attack where a malicious actor sends numerous fake MAC addresses to a switch, overwhelming its CAM table. The CAM table stores MAC addresses and their associated ports for efficient traffic forwarding.
Impact of MAC Flooding:
CAM Table Overflow: When the CAM table is full, the switch cannot learn new MAC addresses and is forced to broadcast traffic to all ports, leading to a degraded network performance and potential data interception.
Switch Behavior: The switch operates in a fail-open mode, treating the network as a hub, which can be exploited for eavesdropping on traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please click the reset All button;
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Select two).
- A. Switch depth
- B. Outlet amperage
- C. Server height
- D. Hard drive size
- E. KVM size
- F. Cooling fan speed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding Rack Size Determination:
The size of a rack for installation is determined by the dimensions of the equipment to be housed in it, primarily focusing on the depth and height of the devices.
Switch Depth:
Depth of Equipment: The depth of network switches and other rack-mounted devices directly influences the depth of the rack. If the equipment is deeper, a deeper rack is required to accommodate it.
Industry Standards: Most racks come in standard depths, but it is essential to match the depth of the rack to the deepest piece of equipment to ensure proper fit and airflow.
Server Height:
Height of Equipment: The height of servers and other devices is measured in rack units (U), where 1U equals
1.75 inches. The total height of all equipment determines the overall height requirement of the rack.
Rack Units: A rack's height is typically described in terms of the number of rack units it can accommodate, such as 42U, 48U, etc.
Why Other Options are Less Relevant:
KVM Size: While important for management, KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switches do not typically determine rack size.
Hard Drive Size: Individual hard drives are installed within servers or storage devices, not directly influencing rack dimensions.
Cooling Fan Speed: Fan speed affects cooling but not the physical size of the rack.
Outlet Amperage: Power requirements do not determine rack dimensions but rather the electrical infrastructure supporting the rack.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on rack installation and equipment sizing.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following ports is used for secure email?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port 587 is used for secure email submission. This port is designated for message submission by mail clients to mail servers using the SMTP protocol, typically with STARTTLS for encryption.
* Port 25: Traditionally used for SMTP relay, but not secure and often blocked by ISPs for outgoing mail due to spam concerns.
* Port 110: Used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), not typically secured.
* Port 143: Used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol), which can be secured with STARTTLS or SSL/TLS.
* Port 587: Specifically used for authenticated email submission (SMTP) with encryption, ensuring secure transmission of email from clients to servers.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses email protocols and ports, including secure email transmission.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on securing email communications and the use of appropriate ports.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains email protocols, ports, and security considerations for email transmission.
NEW QUESTION # 85
A company is hosting a secure that requires all connections to the server to be encrypted. A junior administrator needs to harded the web server. The following ports on the web server. The following ports on the web server are open:
Which of the following ports should be disabled?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a web server that requires all connections to be encrypted, port 80 (HTTP) should be disabled. Port 80 is used for unencrypted web traffic, whereas port 443 is used for HTTPS, which provides encrypted communication.
* Port 80 (HTTP): This port is used for unsecured web traffic. Disabling this port ensures that all web traffic must use HTTPS, which encrypts the data in transit.
* Port 443 (HTTPS): This port is used for secure web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption. Keeping this port open ensures that secure connections can be made to the web server.
* Other Ports:
* Port 22: Used for SSH, providing secure remote access and file transfers.
* Port 587: Used for secure email submission (SMTP) with encryption.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses the roles and security implications of various ports and protocols.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on secure web server configuration and port management.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers port security and best practices for securing web servers.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following ports should a network administrator enable for encrypted login to a network switch?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Port 22 is used for Secure Shell (SSH), which enables encrypted remote login and command execution on network devices.
* Port 23 = Telnet (unencrypted)
* Port 80 = HTTP
* Port 123 = NTP
From Andrew Ramdayal's guide:
"SSH uses port 22 to provide secure command-line access to devices such as switches and routers. Unlike Telnet (port 23), SSH encrypts session traffic, making it the preferred method for remote administration."
NEW QUESTION # 87
Before using a guest network, an administrator requires users to accept the terms of use Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- A. Captive portal
- B. WPA2 encryption
- C. Pre-shared key
- D. Autonomous access point
Answer: A
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that users must view and interact with before being granted access to a network. It is commonly used in guest networks to enforce terms of use agreements. When a user connects to the network, they are redirected to this portal where they must accept the terms of use before proceeding. This method ensures that users are aware of and agree to the network's policies, making it the best choice for this scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 88
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
- A. Link state flooding
- B. Hop count
- C. Administrative distance
- D. Neighbor adjacency
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Introduction to Administrative Distance
* Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
* Static Routes and Backup Routes
* When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
* Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
* The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
* Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
* In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
* 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
* 10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
* Verification:
* After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see page Ref 9fBasic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
- A. A router with only one available LAN port
- B. A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
- C. A firewall performing deep packet inspection
- D. A hub utilizing jumbo frames
Answer: A
Explanation:
Introduction to Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
Use Case for Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.
Example Configuration:
Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.
Explanation of the Options:
A . A router with only one available LAN port: This is correct. Subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to manage multiple networks, making it essential for routers with limited physical interfaces.
B . A firewall performing deep packet inspection: Firewalls can use subinterfaces, but it is not a requirement for deep packet inspection.
C . A hub utilizing jumbo frames: Hubs do not use subinterfaces as they operate at Layer 1 and do not manage IP addressing.
D . A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol: STP is a protocol for preventing loops in a network and does not require subinterfaces.
Conclusion:
Subinterfaces provide a practical solution for routing between multiple VLANs on a router with limited physical interfaces. They allow network administrators to optimize the use of available hardware resources efficiently.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ guide detailing VLAN configurations and the use of subinterfaces (see page Ref 9fasic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
- A. Bridge
- B. Hub
- C. Switch
- D. Access point
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Definition of Jumbo Frames:
* Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes. They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.
* Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:
* Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high-performance networks and data centers.
* Incompatibility of Other Devices:
* Access Point:Primarily handles wireless communications and does not typically support jumbo frames.
* Bridge:Connects different network segments but usually operates at standard Ethernet frame
* sizes.
* Hub:A simple network device that transmits packets to all ports without distinguishing between devices, incapable of handling jumbo frames.
* Practical Application:
* Enabling jumbo frames on switches helps in environments where large data transfers are common, such as in storage area networks (SANs) or large-scale virtualized environments.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking hardware documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on file server 2.
The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identify any issues, and configure the appropriate solution.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution in Explanation.
Explanation:
To validate routing between networks hosting Workstation A and File Server 2, follow these steps:
* Review Routing Tables:
* Check the routing tables of Router A, Router B, and Router C to identify any missing routes.
* Identify Missing Routes:
* Ensure that each router has routes to the networks on which Workstation A and File Server 2 are located.
* Add Static Routes:
* If a route is missing, add a static route to the relevant destination network via the correct interface.
* Routing Table:
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.0.4.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
C 10.0.6.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
L 10.0.6.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
L 172.16.27.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
* Routing Table:
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.0.0.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 10.0.0.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 172.16.27.5/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
* Routing Table:
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
S 10.0.0.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet1
S 10.0.4.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet2
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
L 172.16.27.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 172.16.27.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
* Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet3
* Install Static Route to 10.0.4.0/22 via 172.16.27.5 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.5):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.4.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
* Install Static Route to 10.0.6.0/24 via 172.16.27.2 (assuming Router A's IP is 172.16.27.2):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.6.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.255.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet2
Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router B's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
Summary of Static Routes:
* Router A:
* ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet3
* Router B:
* ip route 10.0.4.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
* Router C:
* ip route 10.0.6.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet2
* ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
These configurations ensure that each router knows the correct paths to reach Workstation A and File Server
2, resolving the connectivity issue.
NEW QUESTION # 92
A company is implementing a wireless solution in a high-density environment. Which of the following 802.11 standards is used when a company is concerned about device saturation and converage?
- A. 802.11ax
- B. 802.11ac
- C. 802.11g
- D. 802.11n
Answer: A
Explanation:
802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6, is designed for high-density environments and improves device saturation and coverage compared to previous standards.
802.11ac: While it offers high throughput, it is not optimized for high-density environments as effectively as 802.11ax.
802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6): Introduces features like OFDMA, MU-MIMO, and BSS Coloring, which enhance performance in crowded environments, reduce latency, and increase the number of devices that can be connected simultaneously.
802.11g and 802.11n: Older standards that do not offer the same level of efficiency or support for high device density as 802.11ax.
NEW QUESTION # 93
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