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CompTIA SK0-005, also known as the CompTIA Server+ certification exam, is a vendor-neutral certification exam that validates the skills and knowledge of server administrators. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification exam is designed to equip IT professionals with the necessary skills to manage and maintain servers in various environments. SK0-005 exam covers a wide range of topics, including server architecture, storage, networking, security, and troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 98
A technician is working on a Linux server. The customer has reported that files in the home directory are missing. The /etc/ f stab file has the following entry:
nfsserver:/home /home nfs defaults 0 0
However, a df -h /home command returns the following information:
/dev/sda2 10G 1G 9G 10% /home
Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST to resolve the issue?
- A. mount /home
- B. mkdir /home
- C. rmdir nfsserver:/home/dev/sda2
- D. umount nfsserver:/home
Answer: B
Explanation:
The fstab (/etc/fstab) (or file systems table) file is a system configuration file on Debian systems.
The fstab file typically lists all available disks and disk partitions, and indicates how they are to be initialized or otherwise integrated into the overall system's file system.
The etc/fstab file has /home as the DIR.. but when a df /home is asked for there is no /home directory underneath... only /dev/sda2. Therefore, we would need to mkdir a /home under the
/home directory.
# <file system> <dir> <type> <options> <dump> <pass>
10.10.0.10:/backups /var/backups nfs defaults 0 0
https://linuxize.com/post/how-to-mount-an-nfs-share-in-linux/
NEW QUESTION # 99
An administrator is configuring a server that will host a high-performance financial application. Which of the following disk types will serve this purpose?
- A. SATA SSD
- B. SAS SSD
- C. SATA drive with 15000rpm
- D. SAS drive with 10000rpm
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best disk type for a high-performance financial application is a SAS SSD. A SAS SSD (Serial Attached SCSI Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory chips to store data and has a SAS interface to connect to a server or a storage array. A SAS SSD offers high speed, low latency, high reliability, and high durability compared to other types of disks, such as SATA SSDs, SAS HDDs, or SATA HDDs. A SAS SSD can handle high I/O workloads and deliver consistent performance for applications that require fast data access and processing.
Reference:
https://www.hp.com/us-en/shop/tech-takes/sas-vs-sata
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of Pll?
- A. IPS
- B. SIEM
- C. DLP
- D. HIDS
Answer: C
Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention and it is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can help prevent data breaches, comply with regulations, and protect the privacy of customers and employees. DLP can also block, encrypt, or quarantine emails that contain sensitive data. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.2)
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following encryption methodologies would MOST likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen?
- A. Encryption at rest
- B. End-to-end encryption
- C. Public key encryption
- D. Encryption in transit
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encryption at rest is a type of encryption methodology that would most likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen. Encryption at rest is a process of encrypting stored data on a device such as a hard drive, SSD, USB flash drive, or mobile device. This way, if the device is lost or stolen, the data cannot be accessed without the encryption key or password. Encryption at rest can be implemented using software tools such as BitLocker on Windows or FileVault on Mac OS, or hardware features such as self-encrypting drives or Trusted Platform Module chips. End-to-end encryption is a type of encryption methodology that ensures encrypted data cannot be intercepted or modified by third parties during transmission over a network. Encryption in transit is a type of encryption methodology that protects encrypted data while it is moving from one location to another over a network. Public key encryption is a type of encryption algorithm that uses a pair of keys: a public key that can be shared with anyone and a private key that is kept secret by the owner. Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/196541/bitlocker-101-what-it-is-how-it-works-and-how-to-use-it/ https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/ https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/ https://www.howtogeek.com/195877/what-is-encryption-and-how-does-it-work/
NEW QUESTION # 102
A server administrator is deploying a new server that has two hard drives on which to install the OS. Which of the following RAID configurations should be used to provide redundancy for the OS?
- A. RAID 6
- B. RAID 5
- C. RAID 1
- D. RAID 0
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 1 (mirroring) is a RAID configuration that should be used to provide redundancy for the OS on a server that has two hard drives on which to install the OS. RAID 1 (mirroring) is a configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 0 (striping) is a configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 5 (striping with parity) is a configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive's worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. RAID 6 (striping with double parity) is a configuration that stripes data across four or more drives with double parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by two drives' worth of space. RAID 6 can tolerate two drive failures without data loss, but not three or more. Reference: https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/
NEW QUESTION # 103
A server administrator is experiencing difficulty configuring MySQL on a Linux server. The administrator issues the getenforce command and receives the following output:
># Enforcing
Which of the following commands should the administrator issue to configure MySQL successfully?
- A. setenforce 1
- B. setenforce 0
- C. setenforce disabled
- D. setenforce permissive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference:
https://blogs.oracle.com/mysql/selinux-and-mysql-v2
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following cloud models is BEST described as running workloads on resources that are owned by the company and hosted in a company-owned data center, as well as on rented servers in another company's data center?
- A. Hybrid
- B. Public
- C. Community
- D. Private
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is the best description of a hybrid cloud model because it combines both private and public cloud resources. A private cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a single organization and hosted in its own data center. A public cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a third-party provider and hosted in its data center. A hybrid cloud allows an organization to leverage both types of cloud resources depending on its needs and preferences. Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/
NEW QUESTION # 105
A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?
- A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall
- B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure
- C. The server is not joined to the domain
- D. The local hosts file is blank
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 106
A technician is attempting to reboot a remote physical Linux server. However, attempts to command a shutdown -----now result in the loss of the SSH connection. The server still responds to pings. Which of the following should the technician use to command a remote shutdown?
- A. A KVM
- B. An IDRAC
- C. virtual serial console
- D. A crash cart
Answer: B
Explanation:
An IDRAC (Integrated Dell Remote Access Controller) is a tool that can be used to command a remote shutdown of a physical Linux server. An IDRAC is a hardware device that provides out-of-band management for Dell servers. It allows the technician to access the server's console, power cycle, reboot, or shut down the server remotely using a web interface or a command-line interface. An IDRAC does not depend on the operating system or network connectivity of the server. A virtual serial console is a tool that can be used to access a remote virtual machine's console using a serial port connection. A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows the technician to switch between different computer sources using the same keyboard, monitor, and mouse. A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a keyboard, monitor, mouse, and other tools that can be connected to a physical server for troubleshooting purposes. Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-the-idrac https://www.howtogeek.com/799968/what-is-a-kvm-switch/ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1032/business-impact-analysis-bia
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following BEST describes a warm site?
- A. The site has partial infrastructure and some data.
- B. The site has partially redundant infrastructure and no network connectivity
- C. The site has all infrastructure and some data
- D. The site has all infrastructure and live data.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has some pre-installed hardware, software, and network connections, but not as much as a hot site. A warm site also has some backup data, but not as current as a hot site. A warm site requires some time and effort to become fully operational in the event of a disaster. A hot site is a disaster recovery site that has all infrastructure and live data, and can take over the primary site's operations immediately. A cold site is a disaster recovery site that has no infrastructure or data, and requires significant time and resources to set up. Reference:
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/disaster-recovery-site/
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/3780/warm-site
NEW QUESTION # 108
A technician needs to deploy an operating system that would optimize server resources. Which of the following server installation methods would BEST meet this requirement?
- A. Bare metal
- B. GUI
- C. Full
- D. Core
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bare Metal OS installed directly on the server hardware
Traditional installation option
Resources not shared among multiple installations
Provides the security, reliability, and performance required by some industries May be more costly than virtualization
NEW QUESTION # 109
An administrator discovers a Bash script file has the following permissions set in octal notation;
777
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate command to ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script?
- A. chmod u=rwx
- B. chmod go-rw>:
- C. chmod g-rwx
- D. chmod u+wx
Answer: B
Explanation:
chmod is a command-line tool that changes the permissions of files and directories in Linux and Unix systems. chmod go-rwx means to remove read, write, and execute permissions for group and other users from a file or directory. This can ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script, since root user has full access to all files and directories regardless of their permissions. Reference: https://linux.die.net/man/1/chmod
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following would a systems administrator implement to ensure all web traffic is secure?
- A. SMTP
- B. SSL
- C. PGP
- D. SSH
Answer: B
Explanation:
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL): SSL and its successor Transport Layer Security (TLS) enable client and server computers to establish a secure connection session and manage encryption and decryption activities.
Reference: https://paginas.fe.up.pt/~als/mis10e/ch8/chpt8-4bullettext.htm
NEW QUESTION # 111
A new application server has been configured in the cloud to provide access to all clients within the network. On-site users are able to access all resources, but remote users are reporting issues connecting to the new application. The server administrator verifies that all users are configured with the appropriate group memberships. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?
- A. Role-based access control is misconfigured.
- B. Telnet connections are disabled on the server.
- C. There are misconfigured firewall rules.
- D. Group policies have not been applied.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is the most likely cause of the issue because firewall rules can block or allow traffic based on source, destination, port, protocol, or other criteria. If the firewall rules are not configured properly, they can prevent remote users from accessing the cloud application server, while allowing on-site users to access it. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview
NEW QUESTION # 112
In which of the following media rotation schemes are daily, weekly, and monthly backup media utilized in a first-in, first-out method?
- A. Tower of Hanoi
- B. Grandfather-father-son
- C. Synthetic full
- D. Waterfall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Grandfather-father-son (GFS) is a common backup rotation scheme that uses daily, weekly, and monthly backup media in a first-in, first-out (FIFO) method. The daily backups are rotated on a 3-months basis using a FIFO system as above. The weekly backups are similarly rotated on a bi-yearly basis, and the monthly backups are rotated on an annual basis. The oldest backup media in each cycle are overwritten by the newest ones. This scheme provides multiple versions of backup data at different intervals, allowing for flexible restoration options. Waterfall is another name for GFS. Synthetic full is a backup method that combines an initial full backup with subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup without transferring all data again. Tower of Hanoi is another backup rotation scheme that uses an algorithm based on moving disks between three pegs. Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Backup_rotation_scheme
NEW QUESTION # 113
A server administrator is assigning an internally routable IPv6 unique local address to servers in a datacenter. Which of the following network addresses should the administrator assign to a server?
- A. fd00:1348:4ef0:1ab9::1fd4
- B. 192.168.0.10
- C. 2901:4868:4800::8844
- D. 10.40.251.33
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 114
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One of the key benefits of obtaining the CompTIA Server+ certification is that it is vendor-neutral. This means that individuals who hold this certification are not tied to any particular vendor or technology, making them highly valuable to organizations that use a variety of server hardware and software. Additionally, the certification is recognized globally, making it an excellent choice for individuals who are interested in pursuing an international career in IT.
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